Jump to content

Proto-Indo-European

Fragment of a discussion from User talk:Rua

That depends on the language. Aside from languages that preserve the accent placement itself, there are also languages that preserve indirect traces of the accent. Verner's Law in Germanic is a good example of that.

—CodeCat‎01:53, 3 February 2013

Ok. Do you have any idea how PIE *méme ~ moy reflexed into PG *mīnaz?

Jackwolfroven (talk)‎02:40, 3 February 2013

I don't think they did. *mīnaz probably goes back to an earlier *meynos, but I don't know where that came from.

—CodeCat‎02:55, 3 February 2013
Edited by another user.
Last edit: 22:18, 28 May 2014

It could be related to the *-nos in *(h)óy(h)nos, and then the *mey- would be an e-grade of the PIE *moy. But I don't know how the *-nos suffix works, and it seems to be in free variation with *-kos and *-wos. Is it a known suffix?

Jackwolfroven (talk)‎03:18, 3 February 2013

As far as I know *-nos forms adjectives from verbal roots, but I'm not aware of any other use.

—CodeCat‎03:22, 3 February 2013

Could *éy- have been a verbal root besides a pronoun?

Jackwolfroven (talk)‎03:29, 3 February 2013

Why do you think that?

—CodeCat‎04:04, 3 February 2013

Since in the etymology for *óynos it says, "Perhaps built on the pronominal stem *h₁ey- 'he, she, it'."

Jackwolfroven (talk)‎04:19, 3 February 2013
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Retrieved from "https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Thread:User_talk:CodeCat/Proto-Indo-European/reply_(64)#Proto-Indo-European_2014"