Talk:nadie

I think the example sentence "No sabe nadie que su hermano es gay" is incorrect. If I'm not wrong, the use of "nadie" plus a finite verb to discuss something that applies to nobody requires that the finite verb be in the subjunctive mood, not the indicative. Thus, I think the sentence should read "No sepa nadie que su hermano es gay". Can anyone confirm or deny this for me? Cenabis bene, mi Fabulle, apud me 17:36, 10 January 2012 (UTC)

Searching google for "no sabe nadie" gets more hits than "no sepa nadie", which seems to always be in the context "que no sepa nadie". ~Random facts — [Ric Laurent] — 18:06, 10 January 2012 (UTC)

I think an answer relating to the linguistic background of the use of the subjunctive might be a little more helpful. Cenabis bene, mi Fabulle, apud me 21:11, 10 January 2012 (UTC)

I have no formal training in Spanish, so obviously I can't say for sure. But it would strike me as highly unusual if a pronoun should require the subjunctive with it in main clauses. If (!) a subjunctive were required at all, I would expect it in the subclause. Thus possibly: "No sabe nadie que su hermano sea gay." 178.4.151.244 22:36, 19 May 2023 (UTC)

For the Ladino entry - it shouldn't be listed for nadie. I understand there is a quote from AY with nadie in it, but most scholars and speakers consider it as only modern Spanish. In Ladino it is dinguno or ninguno. My two cents anyway. Nevermiand. (talk) 19:38, 11 February 2025 (UTC)