Reconstruction talk:Proto-Indo-Iranian/Hásti

Why are the forms which descended from the first person subjunctive (which later came to be considered imperatives in classical Sanskrit) listed as imperatives, and why are the 2nd and 3rd person subjunctive forms missing (the ending -ni in the first person singular subjunctive - later reanalyzed as an imperative - is likely a later addition) ?

conjugation

answer to above question: because the conjugation is simply amateurism Exarchus (talk) 00:10, 9 November 2024 (UTC)