Reconstruction talk:Proto-Indo-European/-st
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Latest comment: 3 years ago by Rua in topic Why is the suffix claimed to be -st- and not just -s-?
Seems like this is used in nouns too: *dʰéh₁s. Could someone add that? — Eru·tuon 04:56, 6 April 2016 (UTC)
- It would be lemmatised to *-s, the nominative singular form of the suffix. I would like to know more about this suffix though, specifically its meaning/function. Do you have any sources that say anything about it? —CodeCat 13:00, 6 April 2016 (UTC)
Why is the suffix claimed to be -st- and not just -s-?
[edit]The way it looks to me, and the way it's presented in most of the scholarly literature, is that the -t is just a 3rd person inflectional ending (after all, it isn't found in most of the other forms), and the actual derivational suffix is just -s-. The same applies to the other sigmatic aorists. I found a similar oddity in the treatment of the tOmos/tomOs type, where the suffix was said to be -os, even though the -s is just a nominative singular inflectional ending and isn't found in most of the other forms.--95.42.25.28 23:03, 1 February 2021 (UTC)