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Latest comment: 5 months ago by J3133 in topic incomprehensible explanation

Etymology

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@Per utramque cavernam: concerning this change, I should point out that the OED Online does indicate a derivation from Latin tingēre (with a diacritic over the e) rather than tingere (without one). — SGconlaw (talk) 18:54, 12 March 2019 (UTC)Reply

@Sgconlaw: Mh, all right. I'd be inclined to see that as a mistake on their part. In any case, the question is about whether the verb belongs to the second (-ē-) or the third (-ĕ-) conjugation, certainly not about whether it's an infinitive or a second-person singular future passive indicative. Saying the English verb has been borrowed from the latter makes no sense. Per utramque cavernam 19:03, 12 March 2019 (UTC)Reply
Well, you probably know better so you decide. — SGconlaw (talk) 19:08, 12 March 2019 (UTC)Reply

incomprehensible explanation

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"tincture, teint, (the latter two obsolete) teinture"

What is meant with "the latter two obsolete"? -- Espoo (talk) 18:20, 14 July 2024 (UTC)Reply

@Espoo: teint and teinture are obsolete; I have moved the qualifier to the end, which is where it originally appeared. J3133 (talk) 18:52, 14 July 2024 (UTC)Reply