Talk:signifieth

This has to be more than just the archaic 3rd sg. present indicative form of signify. It is used in the 19th and 20th century, when all the -th verbal endings had become -s. It remained as a fixed archaic form, seemingly used to literally mean signifies. What then is the difference between signifies and signifieth in these contexts, besides the pedantic sound? And why is this not found with other verbs?

Examples:

...he applied himself to a process which Mr. Dawkins designated as ‘japanning his trotter-cases.’ The phrase, rendered into plain English, signifieth, cleaning his boots.

(Oliver Twist, Charles Dickens, 1837)

The Logan Hotel is situated on the banks of Lake Bigler - or Lake Tahoe, which signifieth "grasshopper" in the Digger tongue.

(Letter from Mark Twain, 1863)

"State" or "estate" signifieth such inheritance, freehold, term for years...

(A Treatise on Deeds, Robert Norton et al., 1906)

— This comment was unsigned.

You seem to answer your own question — the form is archaic (as distinct from obsolete, which would mean it had fallen out of use altogether). In the examples above, it seems to have been used to give the line an antique or exceptionally formal feel. "-eth" forms are found in the (old) KJV and in old literature, so they can conjure up the gravitas and/or excessive formality of such works. (Archaic is defined as "No longer in general use, but still found in some contemporary texts that aim for an antique style".) Other "-eth" forms persisted in use in the same period, e.g. google books:"who walketh" turns up examples from 1826 and seemingly also 1919 (though perhaps that one is a reprint of an older work). - -sche (discuss) 06:04, 31 July 2015 (UTC)