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Latest comment: 1 month ago by Ysrael214 in topic Phrasing

Phrasing

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@Myrnamyers It seems you have a source for this. Is this from Blair and Robertson? Which volume and which document? Don't just remove what was indicated because that was (still) declared "official" in the municipality website: https://morongrizal.gov.ph/about-us/history/ If you have a counterclaim, provide reasoning after the said thing.

Ex. From Moron, province of Spain. However, some document implies it may not be from Castilian since it is attested by Miguel of Loarca in listing the towns of the Muslim region of Luzon in 1582. All names of the towns mentioned except for Catholic saintly names are from Philippine-languages. Naming after a Spanish town (where the Philippine town would have to be newly founded) would be an extraordinary case, but there was no such comment.

Also, have you read sources that also provide support for Moron, Spanish province etymon? Do you see still that it's wrong? 𝄽 ysrael214 (talk) 21:02, 7 October 2024 (UTC)Reply

@Myrnamyers And upon addition of the Tagalog word murong, have you seen if it is actually existing or not? I own the San Buenaventura 1613 dictionary (different from Noceda & Sanlucar one) and no word Morong entry exists. Just remove the etymology if there's no good alternative, you may even be wrong on that one. But who knows it could be a plant name but we want the information to be good as much as possible. 𝄽 ysrael214 (talk) 21:07, 7 October 2024 (UTC)Reply
@Myrnamyers So far I've read 8 chapters and just skipped the rest because they seem to be talking about customs. Isn't the chapter relevant is Chapter 3? No paragraph states that Morong came from a native word. Is your logic, most towns seem to be of Philippine language origin so Morong must be the same? The only thing being talked about was there was an encomendero assigned to Morong. And that Morong is part of Luzon. Morong, according to their website was established 1572 (some sites say 1578 but to be confirmed but for sure is it's before 1582), a decade before the Loarca's letter to whoever is the Lordship of the time. How is the Spanish etymology proven wrong then? 𝄽 ysrael214 (talk) 02:11, 8 October 2024 (UTC)Reply