Talk:Dörner

No, no and again no: No relation to Dorn! See also my german comment …, BD (talk) 07:28, 20 June 2016 (UTC)

First of all, please refrain from replacing the definition with a disorganized quasi-etymology. Secondly, how do you know that the existing definition has never been used in the history of the language? It's not uncommon for a common noun and a proper noun with different histories to share the same spelling (at least in languages where the capitalization is the same). An archaic term is one that's no longer used except when trying to talk or write in the manner of an earlier historical period- it's very easy for modern speakers to be unaware of such a term. Chuck Entz (talk) 03:52, 21 June 2016 (UTC)