Talk:имѧ

Descendants?

Is it really correct to derive all of these Slavic cognates from OCS? As far as I have understood, OCS is only the direct ancestor to South Slavic languages, especially Bulgarian. Wakuran 17:52, 15 February 2008 (UTC)

Somebody ask the very same question here the other day, and the short answer is: no. OCS was codified by Constantine-Cyril on local idiom of Thessaloniki (Greece was still invaded by Slavs back then ^_^), but is still bears so much resemblance to Late Proto-Slavic that one can say that modern Slavic forms "descended" from those attested in OCS. Until they're all moved into Appendix:, it's still good to have them listed here at last. Another problem about inheritance is that later a lot of OCS lexemes (and especially of later recensions of Church Slavonic) where borrowed into vernaculars by local writers as elements of higher literary style, whence they ended up in real language..sometimes it's impossible to distinguish these two cases. This particular form differs from LPSl. reconstruction only by vocalized "strong" 'ь', which occurred in all Slavic languages, so is still correct in some sort of way.. So if one is lazy to make an Appendix page in Category:Proto-Slavic language, he can add it here - and this is usually the case because it takes some research to find out and verify cognates in all the branches. --Ivan Štambuk 18:18, 15 February 2008 (UTC)