Reconstruction talk:Proto-Indo-European/bʰuHyéti

Ancient Greek

@Dghmonwiskos What about the Ancient Greek verb reveals that it is a ye-present? —CodeCat 15:41, 16 February 2017 (UTC)

@CodeCat There is an Aeolic form φυίω, and it seems more likely that Ancient Greek φύω would descend from a ye-present rather than an odd conversion from the aorist form to a present form. Dghmonwiskos (talk) 15:50, 16 February 2017 (UTC)

But does the φυίω reflect a ye-present or something else? That should be sorted out first. —CodeCat 16:37, 16 February 2017 (UTC)

What else could it reflect? At any rate, a ye-present seems more likely than an thematicization (and imperfectivization(?)) of a perfective which apparently was still used in Ancient Greek. Dghmonwiskos (talk) 10:35, 18 February 2017 (UTC)