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Reconstruction talk:Proto-Finnic/kevät

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Latest comment: 10 years ago by Tropylium in topic Citation needed

Citation needed

[edit]

Where does this reconstruction *keväc come from? I've not seem any such thing referenced anywhere, and there is no t/s alternation in the singular (only in the plural). Most reflexes indicate simply *kevät. As noted at Wikipedia, I belive Veps keväs should be by default assumed to be simply a shift in declension class. Võro kevväi : keväjä- indicates something like perhaps *kevägä (and could be a similar development).

The Uralisches Etymologisches Wörterbuch reconstructs original *keŋä, and assumed secondary suffixation in Finnic, though this is kinda suspect, as this word is a completely sui generi stem type in Finnic. At some other place I've seen original *keŋäč(V), which might work better. --Tropylium (talk) 00:16, 9 November 2014 (UTC)Reply

This really comes down to the question of whether there was a real distinction between consonant and vowel stems. As far as I can tell, if the two types were distinct at all, the only way they would differ in Finnic is by the presence/absence of the final -i in the nominative. Syncope and epenthesis of -e- would have removed any other differences. —CodeCat 00:30, 9 November 2014 (UTC)Reply
I mainly mean: whose reconstruction is it to have *-c and not *-t, and to assume some sort of later levelling? There was definitely a contrast between these (e.g. *ohudet > Fi. ohuet plural of 'thin' vs. *ohudec > Fi. ohuus 'thinness'). --Tropylium (talk) 01:50, 9 November 2014 (UTC)Reply
It's my own, based on the assumption that there was no distinction between consonant stems and e/i-stems. If there was, then the inflection module needs to be changed to handle it. —CodeCat 01:53, 9 November 2014 (UTC)Reply
Ah, I was wondering if you had found some recent reference on this topic.
I'm not sure if I follow what the declension problem is though. This word has no *-i, and hence there should be no reason to assume assibilation. It should be perfectly possible to continue treating consonant-stems and vowel-stems the same, as long as you allow for a distinction between stems ending in *-c(i) ( : *-t-), and those like this that seem to have had plain *-t (which definitely existed).--Tropylium (talk) 02:14, 9 November 2014 (UTC)Reply
Well that's the problem. The word has no -i because if it had one, it would have been apocopated anyway. So it's more a matter of assuming it had once been there, or that it never was. Right now the inflection module changes final -t to -c in such nouns because it assumes the -i had always been there. But that apparently needs to be changed so that it knows when nouns had no -i and when they did. How would this apply to verbs, though? Verbs also have an endingless form, the third-person singular present. The same code that produces the -c in nouns also produces this form, so any change would affect such verbs too. —CodeCat 02:21, 9 November 2014 (UTC)Reply
If you're asking what is the correct underlying phonological analysis, that is an entire research problem of its own. But as long as we mainly care about getting the surface forms right, I could imagine three options:
  1. The vowel-stem/consonant-stem distinction.
  2. Phonologizing the *t/*c contrast in words like this, + a rule that sorts stem-final *-(C)c- and *-(C)t- into the same declension class everywhere else.
  3. Phonologizing the *t/*c contrast everywhere (and not just in the geminates).
I think there is still no single *t/*c contrast in verb stems. Though things should be amendable if new issues turn up.--Tropylium (talk) 23:43, 9 November 2014 (UTC)Reply